PCCET Free Certification Exam Material from Real4Prep with 145 Questions

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Q21. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

 Network

 Management

 Cloud

 Security

Q22. You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.
Which type of attack is this?

 Whaling

 Spamming

 Spear phishing

 Phishing

Q23. Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

 interfaces

 business

 technology

 people

The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)

Q24. Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

 Knowledge-based

 Signature-based

 Behavior-based

 Database-based

IDSs and IPSs also can be classified as knowledge-based (or signature-based) or behavior-based (or statistical anomaly-based) systems:
* A knowledge-based system uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts. These types of systems have lower false-alarm rates than behavior-based systems but must be continually updated with new attack signatures to be effective.
* A behavior-based system uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt.
These types of systems are more adaptive than knowledge-based systems and therefore may be more effective in detecting previously unknown vulnerabilities and attacks, but they have a much higher false-positive rate than knowledge-based systems

Q25. How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

 Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

 Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

 Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

 Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

Prisma SaaS connects directly to the applications themselves, therefore providing continuous silent monitoring of the risks within the sanctioned SaaS applications, with detailed visibility that is not possible with traditional security solutions.

Q26. Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

 DNS Security

 URL Filtering

 WildFire

 Threat Prevention

Q27. Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

 User-ID

 Device-ID

 App-ID

 Content-ID

Explanation
App-ID™ technology leverages the power of the broad global community to provide continuous identification, categorization, and granular risk-based control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications, ensuring new applications are discovered automatically as they become popular.

Q28. In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

 Cortex XDR

 AutoFocus

 MineMild

 Cortex XSOAR

Explanation
In addition to local analysis, Cortex XDR can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect.

Q29. What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

 Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

 Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

 Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

 Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

Q30. Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

 Department of Homeland Security

 MITRE

 Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

 Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

Q31. Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Q32. In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

 exploitation

 actions on the objective

 command and control

 installation

Explanation
Command and Control: Attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to command-and-control (C2) servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods as additional targets of opportunity are identified within the victim network, or to evade any new security countermeasures that the organization may attempt to deploy if attack artifacts are discovered.

Q33. SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

 People

 Accessibility

 Processes

 Understanding

 Business

The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)
All elements must tie back to the business itself and the goals of the security operations

Q34. Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

 You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

 You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

 You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

 You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

Q35. In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

 SaaS

 PaaS

 On-premises

 IaaS

Q36. Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

 an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

 exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

 access by using a third-party vendor’s password

 a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

 ローディング …

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